The income of the producer is his rightful property.
And in the article I have linked today, note the quote in para 3 which is attributed to the official who did not wish to be named. He says (and I quote)
“Let them criticize. How can you collect money from people and not deposit it with the government? It is the government’s money,”
There he goes begging the very question that I asked in the previous post. The simple question is, how does a portion of the property of the producer become the property of government (for how else could he call it the government’s money)?
This is precisely the point. Is he saying that passing The Excise Act into law magically transforms the producer’s property into government’s property? So government can pass titles to ownership to itself by just passing an act into law, can it? What is the source of this magical power? What is the limit of this magical power? What is it that government cannot transfer title to itself to by passing more suitable acts into law or by amending existing law? I am scared. I would be surprised if you aren’t.